DBMS Most Important MCQ Questions🔥|ComputerScience Competitive Exams Ke Liye Must-Watch!#dbmsmcq#cse
- Total Questions: 100
- Duration: 40 minutes
- Type: Objective-type multiple choice questions (MCQs)
- For all type of competitive examination
- Questions Level: Engineering/Diploma level in Computer Science
Topics Covered:
· RELATIONAL DATABASE
· KEYS
·
SQL BASIC
· TRANSACTION
· NORMAL FORMS
·
INTEGRITY CONSTRAINT
· TRIGGER
·
RELATIONAL ALGEBRA
· STORAGE AND FILE STRUCTURE
·
CONCURRENCY CONTROL
·
RECOVERY SYSTEM
1. What is the full form of DBMS?
a) Data of Binary Management System
b) Database Management System
c) Database Management Service
d) Data Backup Management System
2. What is a database?
a) Organized collection of information that cannot be accessed, updated, and managed
b) Collection of data or information without organizing
c) Organized collection of data or information that can be accessed, updated, and managed
d) Organized collection of data that cannot be updated
3. What is DBMS?
a) DBMS is a collection of queries
b) DBMS is a high-level language
c) DBMS is a programming language
d) DBMS stores, modifies and retrieves data
4. Who created the first DBMS?
a) Edgar Frank Codd
b) Charles Bachman
c) Charles Babbage
d) Sharon B. Codd
5. Which type of data can be stored in the database?
a) Image oriented data
b) Text, files containing data
c) Data in the form of audio or video
d) All of the above
6. In which of the following formats data is stored in the database management system?
a) Image
b) Text
c) Table
d) Graph
7. Which of the following is not a type of database?
a) Hierarchical
b) Network
c) Distributed
d) Decentralized
8. Which of the following is not an example of DBMS?
a) MySQL
b) Microsoft Acess
c) IBM DB2
d) Google
9. Which of the following is not a feature of DBMS?
a) Minimum Duplication and Redundancy of Data
b) High Level of Security
c) Single-user Access only
d) Support ACID Property
10. Which of the following is a feature of the database?
a) No-backup for the data stored
b) User interface provided
c) Lack of Authentication
d) Store data in multiple locations
11. Which of the following is not a function of the database?
a) Managing stored data
b) Manipulating data
c) Security for stored data
d) Analysing code
12. Which of the following is a component of the DBMS?
a) Data
b) Data Languages
c) Data Manager
d) All of the above
13. Which of the following is a function of the DBMS?
a) Storing data
b) Providing multi-users access control
c) Data Integrity
d) All of the above
14. Which of the following is known as a set of entities of the same type that share same properties, or attributes?
a) Relation set
b) Tuples
c) Entity set
d) Entity Relation model
15. What is information about data called?
a) Hyper data
b) Tera data
c) Meta data
d) Relations
16. What does an RDBMS consist of?
a) Collection of Records
b) Collection of Keys
c) Collection of Tables
d) Collection of Fields
17. . is a hardware component that is most important for the
operation of a database management system.
a) Microphone
b) High speed, large capacity disk to store data
c) High-resolution video display
d) Printer
18. The ability to query data, as well as insert, delete, and alter tuples, is offered by
a) TCL (Transaction Control Language)
b) DCL (Data Control Language)
c) DDL (Data Definition Langauge)
d) DML (Data Manipulation Langauge)
19. is a set of one or more attributes taken collectively to uniquely identify a record.
a) Primary Key
b) Foreign key
c) Super key
d) Candidate key
20. Which command is used to remove a relation from an SQL?
a) Drop table
b) Delete
d) Remove
21. Which of the following set should be associated with weak entity set for weak entity to be meaningful?
a) Neighbour set
b) Strong entity set
c) Owner set
d) Identifying set
22. Which of the following command is correct to delete the values in the relation teaches?
a) Delete from teaches;
b) Delete from teaches where Id =’Null’;
c) Remove table teaches;
d) Drop table teaches
23. Procedural language among the following is
a) Domain relational calculus
b) Tuple relational calculus
c) Relational algebra
d) Query language
24. operations do not preserve non-matched tuples.
a) Left outer join
b) Inner join
c) Natural join
d) Right outer join
25. Which forms have a relation that contains information about a single entity?
a) 4NF
d) 3NF
26. The top level of the hierarchy consists of each of which can contain
.
a) Schemas, Catalogs
b) Schemas, Environment
c) Environment, Schemas
d) Catalogs, Schemas
27. indicates the maximum number of entities that can be involved in a relationship.
a) Greater Entity Count
b) Minimum cardinality
c) Maximum cardinality
d) ERD
28. The user IDs can be added or removed using which of the following fixed roles?
a) db_sysadmin
b) db_accessadmin
c) db_securityadmin
d) db_setupadmin
29.
clause, allowing aggregate functions to be used.
a) Where
b) Having
c) Group by
d) With
30. Which of the following is not the utility of DBMS?
a) Backup
b) Data Loading
c) Process Organization
d) File organization
31. What does a foreign key combined with a primary key create?
a) Network model between the tables that connect them
b) Parent-Child relationship between the tables that connects them
c) One to many relationship between the tables that connects them
d) All of the mentioned
32. Which of the following is correct according to the technology deployed by DBMS?
a) Pointers are used to maintain transactional integrity and consistency
b) Cursors are used to maintain transactional integrity and consistency
c) Locks are used to maintain transactional integrity and consistency
d) Triggers are used to maintain transactional integrity and consistency
33. Which of the following is correct regarding the file produced by a spreadsheet?
a) can be used as it is by the DBMS
b) stored on disk in an ASCII text format
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
34. What is the function of the following command?
Delete from r where P;
a) Clears entries from relation
b) Deletes relation
c) Deletes particular tuple from relation
d) All of the mentioned
35. resembles Create view.
a) Create table . . . as
b) Create view as
c) Create table . . .like
d) With data
36. The query specifying the SQL view is said to be updatable if it meets which of the following conditions?
a) select clause contains relation attribute names but not have expressions, aggregates, or distinct specification
b) from clause has 1 relation
c) query does not have group by or having clause
d) All of the mentioned
37. Which of the following is the best way to represent the attributes in a large db?
a) Dot representation
b) Concatenation
c) Relational-and
d) All of the mentioned
38. Which of the following is the subset of SQL commands used to manipulate Oracle Structures, including tables?
a) Data Described Language
b) Data Retrieval Language
c) Data Manipulation Language
d) Data Definition Language
39. Which of the following functions construct histograms and use buckets for ranking?
a) Ntil()
b) Newtil()
c) Rank()
d) All of the mentioned
40. command is used in SQL to issue multiple CREATE TABLE,
CREATE VIEW and GRANT statements in a single transaction.
a)create cluster
b) create package
c) CREATE SCHEMA
d) All of the mentioned
41.
encryption is applied to the data so that the unauthorised user cannot access the data?
a) Primary key
b) Authorised key
c) Encryption key
d) Decryption key
42. Which of the following is known as the process of viewing cross-tab with a fixed value of one attribute?
a) Dicing
b) Pivoting
c) Slicing
d) Both Pivoting and Dicing
43. For designing a normal RDBMS which of the following normal form is considered adequate?
a) 4NF
b) 3NF
c) 2NF
d) 5NF
44. Which of the following is popular for applications such as storage of log
performance?
a) RAID level 0
b) RAID level 1
c) RAID level 2
d) RAID level 3
45. The oldest DB model is
a) Network
b) Physical
c) Hierarchical
d) Relational
46. Which forms are based on the concept of functional dependency:
a) 1NF
b) 2NF
c) 3NF
d) 4NF
47. Functional Dependencies are the types of constraints that are based on
a) Key
b) Key revisited
c) Superset key
d) None of the mentioned
48. Tables in second normal form (2NF):
a) Eliminate all hidden dependencies
b) Eliminate the possibility of a insertion anomalies
c) Have a composite key
d) Have all non key fields depend on the whole primary key
49. Which of the following is a physical storage media?
a) Tape Storage
b) Optical Storage
c) Flash memory
d) All of the mentioned
50. The is the fastest and most costly form of storage, which is relatively small; its use is managed by the computer system hardware.
a) Cache
b) Disk
c) Main memory
d) Flash memory
51. Which of the following stores several gigabytes of data but usually lost when power failure?
a) Flash memory
b) Disk
c) Main memory
d) Secondary memory
52. The flash memory storage used are
a) NOR Flash
b) OR Flash
c) AND Flash
d) All of the mentioned
53. A unit of storage that can store one or more records in a hash file organization is denoted as
a) Buckets
b) Disk pages
c) Blocks
d) Nodes
54. What are the correct features of a distributed database?
a) Is always connected to the internet
b) Always requires more than three machines
c) Users see the data in one global schema.
d) Have to specify the physical location of the data when an update is done
55. Each tablespace in an Oracle database consists of one or more files called
a) Files
b) name space
c) datafiles
d) PFILE
56. The highest level in the hierarchy of data organization is called
a) Data bank
b) Data base
c) Data file
d) Data record
57. A consists of a sequence of query and/or update statements.
a) Transaction
b) Commit
c) Rollback
d) Flashback
58. Which of the following makes the transaction permanent in the database?
a) View
b) Commit
c) Rollback
d) Flashback
59. In order to undo the work of transaction after last commit which one should be used?
a) View
b) Commit
c) Rollback
d) Flashback
60. In case of any shut down during transaction before commit which of the following statement is done automatically?
a) View
b) Commit
c) Rollback
d) Flashback
61. In order to maintain the consistency during transactions, database provides
a) Commit
b) Atomic
c) Flashback
d) Retain
62. Transaction processing is associated with everything below except
a) Conforming an action or triggering a response
b) Producing detail summary or exception report
c) Recording a business activity
d) Maintaining a data
63. To include integrity constraint in an existing relation use :
a) Create table
b) Modify table
c) Alter table
d) Drop table
64. Which of the following is not an integrity constraint?
a) Not null
b) Positive
c) Unique
d) Check ‘predicate’
65. Foreign key is the one in which the of one relation is referenced in another relation.
a) Foreign key
b) Primary key
c) References
d) Check constraint
66. Domain constraints, functional dependency and referential integrity are special forms of
a) Foreign key
b) Primary key
c) Assertion
d) Referential constraint
67. Dates must be specified in the format
a) mm/dd/yy
b) yyyy/mm/dd
c) dd/mm/yy
d) yy/dd/mm
68. Which of the following is used to store movie and image files?
a) Clob
b) Blob
c) Binary
d) Image
69. The user defined data type can be created using
a) Create datatype
b) Create data
c) Create definetype
d) Create type
70. Values of one type can be converted to another domain using which of the following?
a) Cast
b) Drop type
c) Alter type
d) Convert
71. A is a special kind of a store procedure that executes in response to certain action on the table like insertion, deletion or updation of data.
a) Procedures
b) Triggers
c) Functions
d) None of the mentioned
72. Triggers are not supported for
a) Delete
b) Update
c) Views
d) Insert
73. What are the after triggers?
a) Triggers generated after a particular operation
b) These triggers run after an insert, update or delete on a table
c) These triggers run after an insert, views, update or delete on a table
d) All of the mentioned
74. The variables in the triggers are declared using
a) –
b) @
c) /
d) /@
75. The default extension for an Oracle SQL*Plus file is:
a) .txt
b) .pls
c) .ora
d) .sql
76. Which of the following is NOT an Oracle-supported trigger?
a) BEFORE
b) DURING
c) AFTER
d) INSTEAD OF
77. What are the different in triggers?
a) Define, Create
b) Drop, Comment
c) Insert, Update, Delete
d) All of the mentioned
78. Triggers enabled or disabled
a) Can be
b) Cannot be
c) Ought to be
d) Always
79. A system is in a state if there exists a set of transactions such that every transaction in the set is waiting for another transaction in the set.
a) Idle
b) Waiting
c) Deadlock
d) Ready
80. The deadlock state can be changed back to stable state by using
statement.
a) Commit
b) Rollback
c) Savepoint
d) Deadlock
81. What are the ways of dealing with deadlock?
a) Deadlock prevention
b) Deadlock recovery
c) Deadlock detection
d) All of the mentioned
82. The deadlock in a set of a transaction can be determined by
a) Read-only graph
b) Wait graph
c) Wait-for graph
d) All of the mentioned
83. A deadlock exists in the system if and only if the wait-for graph contains a
a) Cycle
b) Direction
c) Bi-direction
d) Rotation
84. rollback requires the system to maintain additional information about the state of all the running transactions.
a) Total
b) Partial
c) Time
d) Commit
85. The recovery scheme must also provide
a) High availability
b) Low availability
c) High reliability
d) High durability
86. Which one of the following is a failure to a system
a) Boot crash
b) Read failure
c) Transaction failure
d) All of the mentioned
87. Which of the following belongs to transaction failure
a) Read error
b) Boot error
c) Logical error
d) All of the mentioned
88. The database is partitioned into fixed-length storage units called
a) Parts
b) Blocks
c) Reads
d) Build
89. Which of the following causes system to crash
a) Bug in software
c) Hardware malfunction
d) All of the mentioned
90. The log is a sequence of recording all the update activities in the database.
a) Log records
b) Records
c) Entries
d) Redo
91. In the scheme, a transaction that wants to update the database first creates a complete copy of the database.
a) Shadow copy
b) Shadow Paging
c) Update log records
d) All of the mentioned
92. The scheme uses a page table containing pointers to all pages; the page table itself and all updated pages are copied to a new location.
a) Shadow copy
b) Shadow Paging
c) Update log records
d) All of the mentioned
93. The current copy of the database is identified by a pointer, called
which is stored on disk.
a) Db-pointer
b) Update log
c) Update log records
d) All of the mentioned
94. In the phase, the system replays updates of all transactions by scanning the log forward from the last checkpoint.
a) Repeating
b) Redo
c) Replay
d) Undo
95. The actions which are played in the order while recording it is called
history.
a) Repeating
b) Redo
c) Replay
d) Undo
96. In order to reduce the overhead in retrieving the records from the storage space we use
a) Logs
b) Log buffer
c) Medieval space
d) Lower records
97. The order of log records in the stable storage as the order in which they were written to the log buffer.
a) Must be exactly the same
b) Can be different
c) Is opposite
d) Can be partially same
98. Writing the buffered log to is sometimes referred to as a log force.
a) Memory
c) Redo memory
d) Disk
99. The policy, allows a transaction to commit even if it has modified some blocks that have not yet been written back to disk.
a) Force
b) No-force
c) Steal
d) No-steal
100. Which lock should be obtained to prevent a concurrent transaction from executing a conflicting read, insert or delete operation on the same key value.
a) Higher-level lock
b) Lower-level lock
c) Read only lock
d) Read write
101. Which of the following is used for undo operations alone?
a) Logical logging
b) Physical logging
c) Physical log records
d) Physical logging and Physical log records
102. Redo operations are performed exclusively using
a) Logical logging
b) Physical logging
c) Physical log records
d) Both Physical logging and Physical log records
103. The remote backup site is sometimes also called the
a) Primary Site
b) Secondary Site
c) Tertiary Site
d) None of the mentioned
104. Remote backup system must be with the primary site.
a) Synchronised
b) Separated
c) Connected
d) Detached but related
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